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Magnetic monopoles question

  1. Nov 10, 2011 #1
    Is the non-existence of magnetic monopoles a fact that can be predicted from classical electromagnetic theory or is it just an empirical fact that Maxwell simply added to his set of equations? Second question: is there any relation between this two facts:

    1. There are no magnetic monopoles

    2. Magnetism is just a relativistic effect
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Nov 11, 2011 #2
    Empirical fact. No mathematical paradox appears if you allow for magnetic monopoles in those equations.

    Yeah, I think that those statements go hand in hand. Either both are correct, or none:

    If there are no magnetic monopoles, as we are assuming in physics at the moment, we know that magnetism can be considered as a relativistic effect.

    And if there are mag. monopoles, we can see that magnetic fields cannot be transformed away by Lorentz-boosts, for the same reason that electric fields are not relativistic effects in the currently established theory. So in that case the mag. field is not a relativistic effect.
     
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