# Magnetic monopoles question

Is the non-existence of magnetic monopoles a fact that can be predicted from classical electromagnetic theory or is it just an empirical fact that Maxwell simply added to his set of equations? Second question: is there any relation between this two facts:

1. There are no magnetic monopoles

2. Magnetism is just a relativistic effect

Is the non-existence of magnetic monopoles a fact that can be predicted from classical electromagnetic theory or is it just an empirical fact that Maxwell simply added to his set of equations?

Empirical fact. No mathematical paradox appears if you allow for magnetic monopoles in those equations.

Second question: is there any relation between this two facts:

1. There are no magnetic monopoles

2. Magnetism is just a relativistic effect

Yeah, I think that those statements go hand in hand. Either both are correct, or none:

If there are no magnetic monopoles, as we are assuming in physics at the moment, we know that magnetism can be considered as a relativistic effect.

And if there are mag. monopoles, we can see that magnetic fields cannot be transformed away by Lorentz-boosts, for the same reason that electric fields are not relativistic effects in the currently established theory. So in that case the mag. field is not a relativistic effect.