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Magnetic susceptibility of Superconductor

  1. Mar 6, 2015 #1
    as we know, B=0 in superconductors, because of Messner effect.

    B0(H+M)
    =>
    H=-M
    =>
    χ=-1
    in CGS units:
    B=H+4πM
    => H=-4πM
    χ=-1/4π
    ---
    question:

    why χ=-0.01 not χ=-1/4π for 100% superconductors?
    :frown::oldshy:
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 11, 2015 #2
    Thanks for the post! This is an automated courtesy bump. Sorry you aren't generating responses at the moment. Do you have any further information, come to any new conclusions or is it possible to reword the post?
     
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