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Magnetic vector potential

  1. Nov 14, 2007 #1
    Why is the magnetic vector potential of a point inside a infinite soleniod azimuthal assuming the axis of solenoid is the z axis.
    Problem is the formulae [itex]A(\vec r)=\int_{v} \frac {\vec J(\vec r^{'})}{r} d\tau [/itex] doesn't hold any more due to the infinite extent of the current
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Nov 16, 2007 #2
    When you say "why is" I assume you mean "what is", and A is simple to find in this case because you can find B using the integral form of ampere's law and then guess A by looking at B = Curl(A).
     
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