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Magnets making things hurtle towards me eep

  1. Feb 27, 2005 #1
    If I have a magnet of known strength (say 3 Tesla) and I have a solid iron sphere of 1 kg and it is positioned 2m from the magnet, how do I go about calculating its acceleration and so its final velocity upon reaching the magnet?

    Do I need to worry about gravity and starting height? I'm obviously going to ignore air resistance..

    I'm really sorry if I've missed something obvious, but I've been thinking about this for ages. I think the reason I might be struggling is that I'm unsure of exactly what "1 Tesla" actually means.. I've looked up the definition but I'm still feeling shaky on it. :shy:

    Thanks if you can help. I'm sorry I can't give anything back to these fora yet, hopefully one day I'll get more confident with my Physics and be able to help some others out!
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 27, 2005 #2
    1 Tesla = 1N/Am because B=F/qv (force over charge and velocity)

    1. you need to know the direction of the magnetic field

    wat have you done so far? care to show?
  4. Feb 28, 2005 #3
    Ah, I'm not sure I knew that second equation.. What does the charge relate to in it?

    I've tried to construct a diagram, and in that I've shown the iron sphere in line with the flux running straight through it.

    I was trying to do it in the context of a magnet in MRI scanners. Can I chose any direction of field? I thought that saying the lines of flux passed straight through would be simplest.. Does it make a big difference which direction they're in?

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