why the author use major loss due to fluid friction is fL(Q^2) / 3(d^5) ?
according to darcy weisbech , the major loss due to friction has the formula of fL(v^2) / 2gD
why the author wrote it as fL(Q^2) / 3(d^5) ?
I don't understand
The Attempt at a Solution
since v= Q/ A , we can rewrite it as
fL(Q^2) / 2g(π^2)(d^5) , am i right ?