The Dirac propagator (e.g. for an electron) is given by the inverse of the field equation in momentum space i.e. ([itex]\displaystyle{\not} p - m)\psi[/itex] = 0, which gives:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[itex]\frac{i}{(\displaystyle{\not} p - m)}[/itex] = [itex]\frac{i(\displaystyle{\not} p + m)}{(p^2-m^2)}[/itex].

So is the propagator for a Majorana particle just the inverse of the Majorana equation: [itex]\displaystyle{\not}p \psi + m \psi_{C}=0[/itex]?

But then this just leads to the Dirac equation if the particle is a Majorana spinor, so is the propagator just the same? If so, where does the difference come into effect in e.g. Feynman integrals?

Thanks.

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Majorana Propagator

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**