Dismiss Notice
Join Physics Forums Today!
The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

Mandl and Shaw 5.1

  1. May 14, 2008 #1
    [SOLVED] Mandl and Shaw 5.1

    To show

    [itex]-\frac{1}{2}F_{\mu\nu}F^{\mu\nu} - \frac{1}{2}(\partial_\mu A^\mu)^2 \quad \mathrm{and} \quad -\frac{1}{2}\partial_\nu A_\mu \partial^\nu A^\mu[/itex]

    represent the same Lagrangian it suffices to show that

    [itex]\partial_\nu A_\mu\partial^\mu A^\nu - \partial_\nu A^\nu \partial_\mu A^\mu[/itex] is at most a 4-divergence.

    The trouble is, I have no idea why this would be the case. Is this a matter of utilizing the product rule in some clever way?

    Edit: Yes it is: factor out [itex]\partial_\nu[/itex].
    Last edited: May 14, 2008
  2. jcsd
  3. Oct 25, 2010 #2
    Re: [SOLVED] Mandl and Shaw 5.1

    does anybody have any suggestion to solve 2.4 too?!
  4. Jun 23, 2011 #3
    Re: [SOLVED] Mandl and Shaw 5.1

    Can this be done without using the Lorentz gauge ([itex]\partial_\mu A^\mu = 0[/itex]) or is it necessary imposed ?
Know someone interested in this topic? Share this thread via Reddit, Google+, Twitter, or Facebook

Similar Discussions: Mandl and Shaw 5.1
  1. Mandl & Shaw page 297 (Replies: 8)

  2. Mandl & Shaw page 263 (Replies: 6)

  3. Mandl & Shaw page 361 (Replies: 24)