- #1
Kalidor
- 68
- 0
In my relativity notes, I have several remarks like the following one:
"The Lorentz condition on the potentials can be written in manifestly covariant form in this way: [tex] \partial_i A^i = 0[/tex] , where the A^i are the components of the 4-potential."
This made me realize I probably have not understood what covariant means. Why would that be manifestly covariant?
"The Lorentz condition on the potentials can be written in manifestly covariant form in this way: [tex] \partial_i A^i = 0[/tex] , where the A^i are the components of the 4-potential."
This made me realize I probably have not understood what covariant means. Why would that be manifestly covariant?