Decimal 5 = 50 percent. 50 percercent is written 50/50, fifty/fifty. Are you closer to 50 percent or one ? I say one. But I may be wrong. What do you think ? What are the implications of your answer ?
Fifty-fifty does not mean the fraction 50/50. The value of that fraction is 1. Fifty-fifty means you take half (50%) and I'll take half. Even steven (which does not refer to Steven Hawking).
"50/50" There is the symmetry of 1) Ratio, 2)Irrational. If symmetry does exist in the irrational, the numerator is also the denominator. I have to go. But think on that.
The idea is. Symmetry is 1.) Rational. 2.) Irrational. Since this is true. 50/50, can be represented by this graphic. O/O This is either 1.) Rational. Or 2.) Irrational. Or 3.) Both Irrational + Rational. If it is both Rational + Irrational. It can be both, or either. I say, it is the rational number 1.
The fact of the matter is the irrational number pi, can be symmetric through rational numbers. 1=1 Edit. [Rational 50/50 = Irrational 50/50] = Real Numbers; 1
:yuck: Sorry but you need to stop and realise you do not have any rigorous understanding of mathematics and you need to sit down and read a lot if you want. The number system we use has been carefully constructed over a long period of time, we don't just take philosophical ideas randomly and turn them in to mathematics with no real idea of what they mean.
I'm trying not to influence mankind. But...I like to talk. So, I'll reiterate myself. # 1.) Symmetry functions with 1. edit # 2.) The irrational number 1 pi / The irrational number 1 pi = 1 / 1
Please explain what that means, I have no idea what the first means and I am going to guess in the second you are trying to write: [tex]\frac{1*\pi}{1*\pi} = \frac{1}{1}[/tex] Which makes sense as: [tex]\frac{1}{1} = 1 \quad \text{and} \quad 1*a=a[/tex] and: [tex]\frac{a}{a} = 1 \quad \forall a \in \mathbb{R} \backslash \{ 0 \}[/tex]
I'm showing a way to classify real numbers. 1 Pi / 1 Pi = 1 / 1 OR. O / O = 1 / 1 Where O Is the description of Pi.
Strange... Are you aware of you cannot express Pi in the form [itex]\frac {a}{b}[/itex]. That is called irrational. Or are you implifing someting else?
If Pi cannot be symmetrically expressed within a fraction, how can pi(edit.The irrational number pi) exist within a fraction ? And then, if pi can be expressed within a fraction, can't that fraction equal 1. And NO. I am no polical Scientist.
Pi must (edit. Symmetrically)exist within a fraction, TO EQUAL PI. That fraction can equal 1. The irrational number pi / The irrational number pi; 1 / 1.
I'm patiently waiting for somebody to prove me wrong. I don't care if I'm wrong. So, go on. Go and prove me wrong. :shy:
Sorry, but I don't understand this... Why 50% = 50/50? This is just terribly wrong, isn't it?? Viet Dao,