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Mechanical Kinetic Energy vs Electrical Potential Energy

  1. Jun 14, 2004 #1
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jun 14, 2004 #2
    jg370,

    Well you're very close to the answer. You've got a tiny mistake here (on the RHS):

    [tex]-\frac{Ze}{{4\pi\varepsilon_o r}} = m\frac{v^2}{2}[/tex]

    If you fix it and then write the general equation for KE, I think you'll see the answer.
     
  4. Jun 14, 2004 #3
    As jdavel said, check the expression on the RHS. This sort of 'coding' error (if you will) left me stumped on a problem which was just recently cleared up for me here. I better start getting in the habit of proof-reading my work. I suggest you do the same.
     
  5. Jun 15, 2004 #4
    By the way, the result in this problem is called the Virial Theorem.
     
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