- #1

asdf1

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but why doesn't the "I" in "RI" have to be "dI"?

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- Thread starter asdf1
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- #1

asdf1

- 734

- 0

but why doesn't the "I" in "RI" have to be "dI"?

- #2

dlgoff

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If ther were no inductor, would you need (dI/dt)?

Regards

Regards

- #3

asdf1

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no, but in that case there is an inductor,

so shouldn't the "I" be "dI"?

so shouldn't the "I" be "dI"?

- #4

dlgoff

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Think of two circuits; one with just a resistor and one with just an inductor (ideal with no resistance).asdf1 said:no, but in that case there is an inductor,

so shouldn't the "I" be "dI"?

- #5

Integral

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- #6

asdf1

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still a little confused~

but isn't the current always changing?

so there isn't supposed to be "I"?

- #7

In an inductor, the instant magnetic flux is proportional to the instant current: [tex]\phi(t) = L i(t)[/tex].

But by Faraday's law, the voltage in a circuit is the derivative of the flux: [tex]v(t) =\frac{d\phi}{dt}[/tex], so [tex]v(t) =L\frac{di}{dt}[/tex].

- #8

asdf1

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thanks~

i think i thought too much...

:P

i think i thought too much...

:P

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