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Momentum and forces

  1. Jan 16, 2014 #1
    Hi, I have a question that may be a little silly, but anyway, here is it...

    From Newton's second law we know that F=dp/dt, this means that, if I apply a force to a body of mass m1 and then I apply the same force to a mass m2, then dp1/dt=dp2/dt, and if both bodies are initially at rest, the I could say that p1=p2, is that right?

    Thanks in advance

  2. jcsd
  3. Jan 16, 2014 #2
    Yes, if you have applied the force for the same duration to both objects the magnitudes of p1 and p2 will be the same. The velocities of the objects, however, will depend on their respective masses: v1 = p1 / m1 and v2 = p2 / m2.
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