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I am reading an article written by Sanders and McGaugh In the article, the first equation is written as $$F = f(r/r_0)GM/r^2~~~(1)$$
where ##x = r/r_0##
Then it goes like if
$$f(x) =
\begin{cases}
1 & \text{if } x <<1 \\
x & \text{if } x >>1
\end{cases} $$
So the equation becomes
$$F =
\begin{cases}
GM/r^2 & \text{if } x <<1 \\
GM/rr_0 & \text{if } x >>1
\end{cases} $$
Then he defines the force acting on the particle ##m## as
$$F = ma\mu(a/a_0)$$
However in the wikipedia its claimed that$$F = \frac {GMm} {\mu(a/a_0)r^2} $$
My first question is what is this ##F## ? It cannot be force since the units do not match. Is it acceleration ?
Or in (1) ##m## is taken as 1 ?
The wiki equation and the equation (1) are the same ?
where ##x = r/r_0##
Then it goes like if
$$f(x) =
\begin{cases}
1 & \text{if } x <<1 \\
x & \text{if } x >>1
\end{cases} $$
So the equation becomes
$$F =
\begin{cases}
GM/r^2 & \text{if } x <<1 \\
GM/rr_0 & \text{if } x >>1
\end{cases} $$
Then he defines the force acting on the particle ##m## as
$$F = ma\mu(a/a_0)$$
However in the wikipedia its claimed that$$F = \frac {GMm} {\mu(a/a_0)r^2} $$
My first question is what is this ##F## ? It cannot be force since the units do not match. Is it acceleration ?
Or in (1) ##m## is taken as 1 ?
The wiki equation and the equation (1) are the same ?
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