- #1
phys_student1
- 106
- 0
Hello again,
Sorry for posting two threads in one day. This is a general question.
Suppose we have a box on a rough surface (fk). The box is being pulled by a
horizontal rope(T1), and is moving with a constant speed v=0.5 m/s.
Now suppose there's exactly similar situation but with v=1 m/s.
According to the 2nd law, T1=T2
I wonder why isn't T2 larger since it's causing a speeder motion ??
(In Serway/Jewett book it's stated that coefficient of friction can vary with
but they approximate this and treat it as if it does not vary)
Sorry for posting two threads in one day. This is a general question.
Suppose we have a box on a rough surface (fk). The box is being pulled by a
horizontal rope(T1), and is moving with a constant speed v=0.5 m/s.
Now suppose there's exactly similar situation but with v=1 m/s.
According to the 2nd law, T1=T2
I wonder why isn't T2 larger since it's causing a speeder motion ??
(In Serway/Jewett book it's stated that coefficient of friction can vary with
but they approximate this and treat it as if it does not vary)