Okay I got to wonder about this: Why is the multinomial coefficient independent of if you start by taking out n1, n2, n3 etc. or n2,n1,n3 or n3, n2, n1... etc.. I mean intuitively from actually doing the combinatorics by counting it seems obvious that the order should not matter. But can this be proved or is it taken as an axiom?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Multinomial coefficient

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