Okay I got to wonder about this: Why is the multinomial coefficient independent of if you start by taking out n1, n2, n3 etc. or n2,n1,n3 or n3, n2, n1... etc.. I mean intuitively from actually doing the combinatorics by counting it seems obvious that the order should not matter. But can this be proved or is it taken as an axiom?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Multinomial coefficient

Loading...

Similar Threads - Multinomial coefficient | Date |
---|---|

Conditional Epectation of Multinomial | Dec 10, 2014 |

Interpreting multinomial logistic results | Apr 29, 2014 |

Conditional Multinomial Problem | Jun 1, 2010 |

Summation notation from a multinomial distribution calculation | Mar 7, 2008 |

Multinomial coefficient question. | Apr 9, 2007 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**