In class today, my teacher said,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

"the definition for multiplicative inverses in the R (real numbers) does not give an inverse for

the real number [1/n] element of R."

What does this mean? It seems counterintuitive, and I can't figure out why it's true.

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Multiplicative Inverses

Loading...

Similar Threads - Multiplicative Inverses | Date |
---|---|

B Why do we put the dot multiplication symbol when integrating | May 29, 2016 |

I Integral limits | Apr 21, 2016 |

I Proving that a function is a solution to the wave equation | Apr 14, 2016 |

Finding Inverse the Function of multiple variable functions | Oct 14, 2012 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**