y and x are both close to 1.
[tex]ln(y) - ln(x) \approx (y-x)(lnx)'[/tex]
Can someone explain me why this is true?
By the way, (lnx)' is the derivative of lnx, which is just 1/x
The Attempt at a Solution
I guess this is something to do with the taylor series of ln(x). I tried to expand ln(y) and ln(x) by taylor series, but I did not get anything from there.