hi every body, im doing an analysis of a paper about a tool used in oil well drilling, they use 3D navier stoke equation and by lubrication aproximation the get this(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

-(1/r) ∂p/∂θ + k (∂( 1/r ∂(rw)/∂r )/∂r )=0

its necesary to get w so i use integral but i obtain an irreal i used mathematica wolfram. but in the paper they obtain

w= 1/2k ∂p/∂θ (ln r - 1/2) + C1 1/2 r + C2/r

somebody could confirm this

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# Navier Stoke Problem

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