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The paper I am reading is http://arxiv.org/PS_cache/math/pdf/0506/0506319.pdf [Broken] ).

I am trying to follow the proof of Theorem 5.1 [a.k.a. eqn. (53)] on pg. 16. Multiplying (22) by (s-1) and differentiating w.r.t. s at s=1 wouldn't be the same as Corrollary 5.2 since s=1, right? So instead use the limit definition, e.g. using

[tex]\frac{\partial f(1)}{\partial s} = \lim_{s\rightarrow 1} \frac{f(s)-f(1)}{s-1} [/tex]

to compute the derivative, is this the right direction? How does (41) come into play here?

Thanks in advance for getting sucked far enough into my problem to post a reply

-Ben

I am trying to follow the proof of Theorem 5.1 [a.k.a. eqn. (53)] on pg. 16. Multiplying (22) by (s-1) and differentiating w.r.t. s at s=1 wouldn't be the same as Corrollary 5.2 since s=1, right? So instead use the limit definition, e.g. using

[tex]\frac{\partial f(1)}{\partial s} = \lim_{s\rightarrow 1} \frac{f(s)-f(1)}{s-1} [/tex]

to compute the derivative, is this the right direction? How does (41) come into play here?

Thanks in advance for getting sucked far enough into my problem to post a reply

-Ben

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