Hi, I'm having a little trouble understanding this little part from a paper. It's about monte carlo simulations, but that shouldn't really matter. First, there's this formula: Fair enough. But then it states that this model can be adapted to the following: But this new term should almost always be the same as the original one, since Poisson(0.01) almost always returns 0? I'm pretty sure I'm interpreting the upper bound wrong, but what should it be then? Thanks!