ok, so today we had our calc midterm, and on it was this question: the limit as X->0 of (1-cosx)/(x^2) what i did was multiply the top and bottom with the conjugate of (1-cosx) which is (1+cosx). then i managed to factor out (sinx/x) twice. since (sinx/x) is just one, iarrived at the answer of 0.5 for the limit of this question. some of my friends tell me that limit does not exist, because the (X^2) would evaluate to zero and you cant have a zero in the denominator. so who's right?