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Normalization factor

  1. Apr 23, 2006 #1
    Hi all! I hope somebody is able to help me on my way with this question.

    I have been asked to show that the Normalization factor for the 1s atomic orbital of H is [tex]1/(\Pi a_o^3)^\frac{1}{2}[/tex]. The wavefunction is [tex]\psi(r) = N exp(-r / a_o)[/tex]

    I'm given [tex]dt = r^2 sin \Theta[/tex] and [tex]dr d\Theta d\Phi[/tex] and [tex]\int_{0}^{\infty}x^n e^{ax} dx=n!/a^n+1[/tex]

    I must admit I'm clueless which direction to go. It was mentioned to me, that squaring the wavefunction is the first step, but I cannot arrive at the given constant. Am I starting off on the wrong foot?

    Thanks for any input, in advance.

    Last edited: Apr 23, 2006
  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 23, 2006 #2


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    You have all the pieces in place.
    Just impose [itex] \int_0^\infty dr r^2 \int_0^{2 \pi} d\phi \int_0^\pi sin(\theta) d\theta \,\,N^2 e^{-2 r /a_0} =1 [/itex] and solve for N.
  4. Apr 23, 2006 #3
    I must admit that my integration is not what it used to be. I'm taking some physical chemistry night classes where this problem was set. How might one initially solve for N?
  5. Apr 23, 2006 #4
    The [tex]\phi[/tex] integral just adds a factor of [tex]2\pi[/tex], change variables in the [tex]\theta[/tex] integral to [tex]x=\cos(\theta)[/tex] and then it becomes a lot nicer.

    Good luck.
    Eoin Kerrane.
  6. Apr 23, 2006 #5


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    the theta integral gives 2. The phi integral gives 2 pi. For the r integral, you have a formula. just compare the r integral to the formual you have, term by term (what is n? etc) and you will have the result of the r integration. Then you have N^2 times an expression = 1 and you solve for N
  7. Apr 23, 2006 #6
    Super guys, I have managed it finally thanks to your help. Best regards
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