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Normalizing a function

  1. Oct 21, 2004 #1
    hello
    I need more ideas about the normalization of functions..like Guassian..
    I think this is to make the possibility of all events =1.(like in Q. mechanics we normalize wavefunctions). So the area under the curve is constant..
    if anybody has more ideas plz reply
    manesh
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Oct 21, 2004 #2

    Tom Mattson

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    Hello manesh, and welcome to Physics Forums.

    Well...

    Yes, that's it right there. That's the only reason we normalize wavefunctions: so that the total probability of all possible outcomes is 1. There's nothing deeper than that to it.

    Or are you asking about how to do it?
     
  4. Oct 21, 2004 #3
    Yes, but what happens when we recognize that some event we normalize to 1 is itself just a sub-event in a larger space? All we do know with absolute certainty is that the universe as a whole exists. The probability of the universe is 1. Everything else has less that a probability of 1.
     
  5. Oct 22, 2004 #4
    I know how to do it..just asked if somebody has more ideas.... :biggrin:
     
  6. Oct 22, 2004 #5

    Tom Mattson

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    Nothing changes, because we already recognize that. We simply do not have total information on the complete state of the universe, so when we do QM we have to consider an idealized system in isolation from the rest of the universe. Since the approach agrees well with experiment, I have no problem with it.
     
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