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Normalizing Wavefunction on a Ring

  1. Mar 12, 2015 #1
    When normalizing a Wavefunction for a particle on a ring why is the normalization only done as dPhi? It's a particle on a ring, so shouldn't it be r*dPhi? This is my thinking, but I do not find other solutions doing this, just ignoring the r part. I understand that for a ring it's just a constant but it still seems important.
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 12, 2015 #2

    mfb

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    2016 Award

    Staff: Mentor

    Is the wavefunction expressed in terms of a linear distance or in terms of the angle phi?

    If you integrate the amplitude squared over the ring the result has to be 1 - the prefactor will depend on the integral you perform.
     
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