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## Main Question or Discussion Point

**Not really Laplace's Equation??**

Hi all!

I've been out of school for awhile and so, some of my engineering math is still rusty. While working out a fluids problem, I got stuck on the following PDE:

[tex]Y''(y)}Z(z)+Y(y)Z''(z)=-1[/tex]

[tex]\frac{Y''(y)}{Y(y)}+\frac{Z''(z)}{Z(z)}=-\frac{1}{Y(y)Z(z)}[/tex]

I know that my equation looks similar to Laplace's Equation:

[tex]Y''(y)}Z(z)+Y(y)Z''(z)=0[/tex]

[tex]\frac{Y''(y)}{Y(y)}=-\frac{Z''(z)}{Z(z)}[/tex]

But since the right hand term in

**my**equation is nonzero, I don't think I can solve it the same way as I would with Laplace's Equation.

Can someone please help me? Your guidance is appreciated! =)

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