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Notation question

  1. Jul 9, 2014 #1
    Hi,

    I have a question about : http://imgur.com/RU7PvtJ

    I actually understand what I need to do. I need to see if both one sided limits are the same to establish that the limit exists. The only thing which I just find weird is the "since y --> 2^(-) implies y<-2"

    Can somebody explain me where this y --> 2^(-) is coming from ??
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jul 9, 2014 #2

    micromass

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    It is just a notation to denote the left-hand limits. So

    [tex]\lim_{x\rightarrow a^-} f(x)[/tex]

    is the limit of ##f(x)## as ##x\rightarrow a## but ##x<a##.
     
  4. Jul 9, 2014 #3
    But shouldn't we say : y --> -2^(-) and not y --> 2^(-) ???
     
  5. Jul 9, 2014 #4

    micromass

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    Yes, you are correct. The book is wrong there (and it is wrong is the same place on the next line too).
     
  6. Jul 9, 2014 #5
    Yes, I also noticed it. Ok, thank you!
     
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