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O notation

  1. May 22, 2010 #1
    I'm not sure if there is another more appropriate place to ask this question but here it is:
    Prove that O(1) is the same as O(2)

    O(1) would be the same as O(2) in the sense that for all n, given the constant functions
    f(n) = c_1, and g(n) = c_2 we have f(n) <= g(n), yes? Or should "same" be taken more
    literally here? If so, then in what way would we prove this?
  2. jcsd
  3. May 22, 2010 #2


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    Homework Helper

    The Wikipedia article on big O notation may be useful here. I think you could use the formal definition to prove that any function which is O(1) is also O(2), and vice-versa, which seems like a reasonable "sameness condition" to me.
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