- #1
hholzer
- 37
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I'm not sure if there is another more appropriate place to ask this question but here it is:
Prove that O(1) is the same as O(2)
O(1) would be the same as O(2) in the sense that for all n, given the constant functions
f(n) = c_1, and g(n) = c_2 we have f(n) <= g(n), yes? Or should "same" be taken more
literally here? If so, then in what way would we prove this?
Prove that O(1) is the same as O(2)
O(1) would be the same as O(2) in the sense that for all n, given the constant functions
f(n) = c_1, and g(n) = c_2 we have f(n) <= g(n), yes? Or should "same" be taken more
literally here? If so, then in what way would we prove this?