- #1
skan
- 15
- 0
f(t) = 1 if -pi/2 <=t <=0
-1 if 0<=t<= pi/2
0 elsewhere
how does integral of f(t)*cost dt become and odd function with the integral limit from - pi/2 to pi/2 ?
thanks a lot
-1 if 0<=t<= pi/2
0 elsewhere
how does integral of f(t)*cost dt become and odd function with the integral limit from - pi/2 to pi/2 ?
thanks a lot