Hi folks -- could anyone think of a justification of the idea that if a function's arguments diverge (i.e. are taken to infinity), there's a high probability that the function too will diverge?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

This would be really helpful for thinking about fundamental theories in particle physics, so any help much appreciated!

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

# On divergence

Know someone interested in this topic? Share a link to this question via email,
Google+,
Twitter, or
Facebook

Have something to add?

- Similar discussions for: On divergence

Loading...

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**