Let X be a measure space, and [itex]f:X\times X\to [0,\infty[[/itex] some integrable function. Is the following inequality always true,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[tex]

\int\limits_{X} dx\;f(x,x)\; \leq\; \sup_{x_1\in X} \int\limits_{X} dx_2\; f(x_1,x_2) ?

[/tex]

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# One integral inequality

Loading...

Similar Threads - integral inequality | Date |
---|---|

How to prove an inequality for a definite exponential integral | May 31, 2012 |

What is the topic full of inequalities of 1/(n+1) and integrals? | Feb 27, 2012 |

Integration Inequality | May 28, 2011 |

Triangle Inequality, Integrals | Nov 21, 2010 |

Inequality with absolute value of a complex integral | Mar 6, 2009 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**