Just do what it says:AznBoi said:How do I do that?
Start by writing down f(a) = f(b).I know that if f(a)=f(b), a=b...
If you can prove what you just said, then you've proven f is one-to-one. It's that easy.AznBoi said:what do you mean? like f(a)=3a+4/5 f(b)=3b+4/5?? a will always equal b if you do it that way wouldn't it?
Why do you think a=b in that case? You've demonstrated that's not always true... so think hard about why you would (incorrectly) believe a=b must be true here.What about f(x)=x^2 It's not a one-to-one fucntion even though f(a)=a^2 is equal to f(b)=b^2 a=b in that case
Show your work.cause a^2 and b^2 would be a=b if you solve it algebrically.
Nope. You get |a| = |b|.a^2=b^2 because you square root both sides and you get a=b?
Just for my peace of mind, could you please post the textbook definition of a one-to-one function? I think that my practical definition of a one-to-one function (any x maps to only one y) may not match what others are asking you to show.AznBoi said:So basically anything that is to an even power is not a one-to-one function. ok this is weird. lol