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Orbital Frequency of a planet

  1. Feb 15, 2016 #1
    Is there an accurate method in computing the 'sound' frquency of a planet? For example, taking the orbital path of say Jupiter for one year, and computing it into an audible frequency? I'm looking for ways to compute this, but I am at a loss to where the best starting point is. Could Bohr's or Rutherford's methods be applied?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 15, 2016 #2

    DaveC426913

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    I'd suggest you're having trouble calculating it because you haven't defined what it is. What does an orbital path have to do with an audible frequency?

    I suppose, on the face of it, if you were to calculate one period as one beat, then Jupiter's frequency is one beat per 12 years.

    But it's kind of fanciful, since it's impossible to hear it.
     
  4. Feb 15, 2016 #3
    Thanks for adding commentary Dave. This all started in one of my music classrooms, when someone brought in a tuning fork they said was a Neptune tuning fork - 211.44Hz. My first reaction was "what the heck is this". First let me be clear, I'm a music professor, and a psychologist, not a physicist. But I figured that by going to someone with a more profound depth than myself in Physics, would provide more insight.

    I agree with you, "What does an orbital path have to do with an audible frequency?" - I looked at this in investigating the source of the tuning fork. There seems to be some 'screwy' math at work. The planets in our solar system all have one thing in common, they all go around the Sun in an orbital path. They also revolve on their own axis, but with different time ratios, and that could be said for the orbital path as well, because some are orbiting faster than the others around the Sun. I looked at Bohr's method of calculation regarding electrons orbiting an atom, having to do with something stable with objects moving around it, and wondered if this could be applied in this case? This tuning fork theory derives from a concept trying to equate a sound frequency (I suppose hypothetical) to a planet, and the math is tied to it's orbital path, which they call as a reference orbital frequency. Possibly we have reached a new level pf pseudoscience here. But I am trying to apply some logic that I can use to address this tuning fork.

    The fact that sound has no medium to travel through in a vacuum, or the mistake that some people have that Schumann Waves are somehow the 'sound' of planet Earth, seems to defy some people's logic. What I am wondering, is there any science supporting this Neptune Tuning Fork, or have we simply fallen into a black hole of nonsensical thinking? Defining this is awkward at best. Can we assign a sound frequency to a planet at all? In any way possible?
     
  5. Feb 15, 2016 #4

    DaveC426913

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    Yes. Pure woo-woo-ism.

    From BioSonics.com:
    [Link deleted]

    If you're looking to explore such an association, PF is probably the worst place to do so. :wink:
     
    Last edited by a moderator: Feb 15, 2016
  6. Feb 15, 2016 #5

    DrClaude

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    Indeed again. Discussion of pseudoscience is not allowed on PF, even for debunking.

    Thread closed.
     
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