- #1
jem05
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I have the result that any 1 dim topological manifold is either R or S1. And I have the fact that every 1-dim topological manifold is orientable in the sense of orientation on simplices.
i want to get that any 1-dim manifold (smooth) is orientable, where orientability is given by the existence of a nowhere vanishing 1-form. Since i know my manifold is either the real line or the circle, does the section s:M --> T∗M that takes each point p to the differential dx at p work as the 1-form i need?
i want to get that any 1-dim manifold (smooth) is orientable, where orientability is given by the existence of a nowhere vanishing 1-form. Since i know my manifold is either the real line or the circle, does the section s:M --> T∗M that takes each point p to the differential dx at p work as the 1-form i need?