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Oscillations in a closed pipe

  1. Jan 24, 2004 #1
    Why cant closed pipes produce even numbered harmonics? I have been given an explaination, but it isnt very detailed. I'm doing A2 (or just A level) physics, so an explaination suitable for this level would be greatly appreciated!
  2. jcsd
  3. Jan 24, 2004 #2
    What explanation have been given to you so far
  4. Jan 24, 2004 #3
    Just that the 1st overtone has a frequency of 3 times the fundamental frequency, therefore the second harmonic is missing.

    Is that all I need to know? It doesnt seem much of an explaination to give in an exam.

    Thanks for your help...
  5. Jan 24, 2004 #4
    yup it not enough Can u calulate the wavelength in terms of L
  6. Jan 24, 2004 #5
    Yes, I can calculate the wavelength from L. But why is there no second harmonic in a closed pipe?
  7. Jan 24, 2004 #6
    Coz for Even harmonics u need a arrangement like this
    2f, 4f which is clearly not possible

    And u never get L = even integer * Wavelength
  8. Jan 24, 2004 #7
  9. Jan 24, 2004 #8
    Thanks! I will look at that more closely. thanks for the link too.:smile:
  10. Jan 24, 2004 #9
    basically it is due to the fact that there is pressure antinode and node at closed and open ends
  11. Jan 24, 2004 #10
    actually, it makes sense now.
    thank you so much. i may just get a good grade in my exam now...
  12. Jan 24, 2004 #11
    Goodluck for exams
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