Earlier today, i had a coup doeil through the following article: http://cerncourier.com/main/article/43/6/15/1 While most of it was clear as sun, certain issue did arise, and i'd like you guys to crystalise those to me. I've been told by emeritus in particle physics, the following: So my first question is conspicuously carnassial: does this definition hold true for all cases, or it could manifest itself elsewhere? Is it even correct to define the p-brane space in such a way? My second question is more of a request for a better explanation and requires the following figure. Could anyone here put it in a more familiar language? Thanks guys.