What does this mean? I'm aware it's one of the millennium problems but I can't seem to find any general understanding of what really is required to be proven here. For example, I understand the Riemann hypothesis clearly (thank god) I've also heard there are many implications in the science and mathematics if this is proven/disproven. What are these, and how do they relate to this problem? It's sometimes the case that even though something has yet to be proven, it's accepted as true since the formula (or whatever) has worked for all numerical cases thus far. Is this problem swaying more towards P=NP or P[itex]\neq[/itex]NP? I'm just out of high school so if this can be explained with mathematics at my level, it would be even better else, an explanation with words will probably surpass any high-level mathematics in its ability to get its point across to me. Thank you! edit: I mean Fermat's Last Theorem.