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(p ⇒ q) =(¬p ∨ q) proof

  1. Apr 2, 2015 #1
    Hi :smile: Im studying mathematical logic by a pdf file. But there is no proof about this therorem so I don't understand.. How to prove this?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 2, 2015 #2

    WWGD

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  4. Apr 2, 2015 #3
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