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Pade integration

  1. Aug 29, 2007 #1
    can we find for a well-behaved f(x) a Rational (Padé approximation) so

    [tex] \int_{0}^{\infty}dx f(x) - \int_{0}^{\infty}dx Q(x) \approx 0 [/tex] ??

    Where Q(x) is a rational function, the main idea is that the integral for Q(x) can be performed exactly , whereas the initial integral of f(x) not.
  2. jcsd
  3. Aug 29, 2007 #2


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    What do you mean by "well behaved"?
  4. Aug 31, 2007 #3
    smooth and differentiable function, for example sin(x) or exp(x^3) ... so it is many times differentiable.
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