so I read about this "theory" a while back, and Ive been doing some thinking about it. The "theory" is basically just that since a black hole with the same mass/spin/charge as a fundamental particle would appear to be identical to that particle, it is possible that all particles are just black holes. Ive come up with a few interesting features of this theory but I don't even know where to start in either showing this theory is possible or completely implausible. The "theory" is that GR and black hole thermodynamics can be used to explain quantum mechanics. Theres 4 features of this that I find interesting but like I said I don't see how to go any further with it (the math of naked singularities is slightly complicated). 1) Like I said above, a black hole with the right parameters would be identical to a classical particle. The only "problem" with this is that given the parameters of the known particles, the black hole would be a naked ring singularity. 2) The particles would be naked ring singularities. I found the expected radius of an electron and it comes suprisingly close to some estimates I found (I have no idea what these estimates are actually measures of though since the electron is supposed to be a point mass right?). This is probably just a coincidence but string theory also predicts that particles are ring singularities. 3) Using black hole thermodynamics this does a very good job of explaining annilihilation. For example, take a positronium "atom". According to quantum mechanics, the particles will only annilihilate in the ground state. In this state, the particles have opposite spin (singlet state). If the particles were black holes, they would independently have no temperature because they would be naked. Therefore they would not radiate and would be stable. However, if an electron black hole joins with a positron black hole of opposite spin, the result would be a chargeless spinless black hole. This resulting black hole WOULD have a temperature and would have a very large temperature. It would quickly evaporate leading to the phenomenon of annilihation. 4) I read something about a backward causality interpretation of QM. I was unable to find any formal definition of it, but the example given was in the case of the EPR experiment. Measurement of the spin of one particle causes the spin of its past "self" to be the same. Since in the past, both particles were in contact, this also affects the past spin of the other particle and therefore the future. This leads to a local interpretation of QM that involves altering the past. It is also true that closed time loops occur in naked singularities. While I have no idea if this phenomenon could cause the backward causality effects of QM, it seems plausible. For example a photon "absorbed" by one black hole during measurement could enter a closed time loop and emerge at some time in the past. any thoughts on this? I realize this leaves a ton of unanswered questions, even if it were true (like why only certain naked singularities can exist, or an explanation of black hole thermodynamics without using QM). However, I found it at the very least an interesting theory. P.S. please don't mention penrose's censorship hypothesis. The absence of evidence isnt the evidence of absence and therefore there is NO evidence for it. Plus, from what Ive heard of string theory, strings ARE "singularities", at least in the sense of being 1 dimensional objects (which would be mathematically defined by a delta function).