Question. Suppose a particle {o} that is a topological entity [see:http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Topology] [Broken] so that it can take an extended form {...o o o o o o o o o ...} to infinity. Now, suppose the transformation to exist as a wavefunction--is this then a correct view of particle-wave duality--e.g., that the two are nothing more than a topological transform ? Thanks for any comments.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Particle-wave topology

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**