Hi, I'm trying to do a problem that goes something like this: There is a mass (m) attached to one end of a massless rod (length l). The other end of the rod is attached to a frictionless pivot. The rod is released from rest at an angle F0 < pi/2. At what angle F does the force in the rod change from compressive to tension? Attached is a diagram of the situation, as well as what I have done so far. I apologize for not putting my working out in the body of my post, but I haven't used LaTex before, and I don't have the time at the moment to learn how to use it. Another thing: The problem should be done using a Lagrangian approach (although it isn't entirely necessary). Any help would be highly appreciated!