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I Perturbative coupling for QFT

  1. Oct 23, 2016 #1
    Hi all ,

    I'm confused about the definition of a perturbative coupling for QFT that it should be less than 4 ## \pi ## , because the higher order corrections comes of order ## \lambda / ( 4 \pi ) ## ..

    Now why QCD is not perturvative at low energy because the coupling constant approaches just 1 at this regine ?
  2. jcsd
  3. Oct 28, 2016 #2
    Thanks for the thread! This is an automated courtesy bump. Sorry you aren't generating responses at the moment. Do you have any further information, come to any new conclusions or is it possible to reword the post? The more details the better.
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