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Phazor question

  1. Jul 17, 2009 #1
    for this signal
    i have this equation
    then the next line is

    why they substitute j with I_s
  2. jcsd
  3. Jul 18, 2009 #2
    the formula of the signal is
    Is=Acos(\omega t+\phi)
    then we transform it to the phasor representation formula
    so we get
    and when we look at this expression as oilers formula we get
    the Is=-j

    so why its written Is=j
  4. Jul 19, 2009 #3


    User Avatar

    [tex]e^{j\theta} = cos(\theta) + j sin(\theta)[/tex]
    for [tex]\theta = \frac{\pi}{2}[/tex]
    [tex]e^{j\frac{\pi}{2}} = cos(\frac{\pi}{2}) + j sin(\frac{\pi}{2}) = 0 + j.1 = j[/tex]
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