- #1

Al3105

- 1

- 0

**ONLY in that particular region.**

I believe that there exists a theorem which proves, that the Picard theorem implies existence and uniqueness for the whole Interval that the given function is defined on. However I can not for the life of me find that theorem.

So how does this work? Am I correct in what I stated above? If I am, then why isn't that theorem as easy to find as Picard's theorem? It would seem that it's just as important.

Could someone explain the theorem and perhaps give or help me find a proof for it?