Hi all! Let's say we are finding the friction loss for a pipe. And the reynolds number is low enough to use Blasius formula for the coefficient of pipe friction. What if I introduce some kind of fouling inside the pipe? Would the actual friction loss greater or smaller than the estimation given by the blasius formula? My thought is that, the actual diameter of the pipe would be smaller than the value used in the prediction if the pipe has fouling. Then, the estimated value should be smaller than the actual one, what do you think?