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If we have a potential with two fields psi and phi with a phase Exp(itheta) , how can we get rid of the field in order for the potential to be real?
Sorry , may be I was not clear enough, but I mean by the potential, the one which appear in quantum field theoryYour question is not really clear. The notation [tex]e^{i \theta}[/tex] represents a field that is oscillating at some frequency and has a phase offset from some reference phase. What do you mean to make the potential "real"? You want to make it DC instead of AC?
Oopsies, sorry for my misinterpretation. I'm of no help on QFT.Sorry , may be I was not clear enough, but I mean by the potential, the one which appear in quantum field theory
I had someone who does understand QFT look at your question, and he doesn't understand what you are asking. Could you please provide more of a context for the question, and more details about the question?Sorry , may be I was not clear enough, but I mean by the potential, the one which appear in quantum field theory
Thank you for your effort beremanI had someone who does understand QFT look at your question, and he doesn't understand what you are asking. Could you please provide more of a context for the question, and more details about the question?
I'm glad to try to help out. But what you've posted there is pretty much just a repeat of your original post. Could you please provide more context? What is the course, what is the textbook, what similar questions are from the same section of this course? Can you provide a physical example where this question would apply?Thank you for your effort bereman
The potential is as follow:V=Psi Phi Exp(itheta) in order for the potential to be real, we should get rid of the imaginery part , how can we do that?
Thanks again