# Potential to be real?

1. Jan 16, 2007

### emanaly

If we have a potential with two fields psi and phi with a phase Exp(itheta) , how can we get rid of the field in order for the potential to be real?

2. Jan 16, 2007

### Staff: Mentor

Your question is not really clear. The notation $$e^{i \theta}$$ represents a field that is oscillating at some frequency and has a phase offset from some reference phase. What do you mean to make the potential "real"? You want to make it DC instead of AC?

3. Jan 17, 2007

### emanaly

Sorry , may be I was not clear enough, but I mean by the potential, the one which appear in quantum field theory

4. Jan 17, 2007

### Staff: Mentor

Oopsies, sorry for my misinterpretation. I'm of no help on QFT.

5. Jan 17, 2007

### Staff: Mentor

I had someone who does understand QFT look at your question, and he doesn't understand what you are asking. Could you please provide more of a context for the question, and more details about the question?

6. Jan 17, 2007

### emanaly

Thank you for your effort bereman
The potential is as follow:V=Psi Phi Exp(itheta) in order for the potential to be real, we should get rid of the imaginery part , how can we do that?
Thanks again

7. Jan 17, 2007

### Staff: Mentor

I'm glad to try to help out. But what you've posted there is pretty much just a repeat of your original post. Could you please provide more context? What is the course, what is the textbook, what similar questions are from the same section of this course? Can you provide a physical example where this question would apply?

8. Jan 18, 2007

### emanaly

Thank you berkeman for all what have you done.
The problem by the grace of God had been solved