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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Suppose the power spectral density denoted by [tex]P(\omega)[/tex] where $\omega$ is the angular frequency and [tex]\omega = 2\pi \nu[/tex], I wonder how to prove that

[tex]2\pi P(\omega) = P(\nu)[/tex]

without know the functional form of [tex]P(\omega)[/tex]. I saw this relation in some book, but I don't know how to prove that.

[tex]2\pi P(\omega) = P(\nu)[/tex]

without know the functional form of [tex]P(\omega)[/tex]. I saw this relation in some book, but I don't know how to prove that.

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