- #1

- 56

- 0

Let's say we take the prime numbers:

2,3,5,7,11,13,17,19,23.......primes

and we take the square(individually) minus 1

3,8,24,48,120,168,288,360,528....p^2 - 1

Then starting with the third p^2 - 1 (24), all of the p^2 - 1 can be rewritten as and earlier p^2-1 times a prime # (or multiple prime #'s)

for example: 24=8x3,48=24x2,528=48x11,...and so on.

Is this at all interseting or just something stupid that I am missing?

Let me know,

Thanks