Consider the wave function corresponding to a free particle in one dimension. Construct the probability density and graph it as a function of position. Is this wavefunction normalizable?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Now, I think that the function should be Psi = C1*exp(ikx-iEt). Thus, the probability density should be the integral over x of C1^2. What I am confused about is what are the limits of the integration...0 and inifinity? And also won' t the answer come out to be a constant if the upper limit is not infinity ? I am totally lost on the normalizable issue.

Thanks,

james

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Homework Help: Probability Density in Quantum Mechanics

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**