# Probability function of two random variables, another non-convergent integral

I found that result because the integral of 0 is 0 so its still 0 when x<0
and then you integrate the interval from the lower bound to x, and thats x
and then since it equals 1 when x is at its maximum (and because this is the property of the cdf) it's one for the rest of the numbers.

I meant a keyboard button. :P

I like Serena
Homework Helper
Exactly.
This is also precisely what you have to do for the problem at hand.
It is what I did in the step I worked out.
Does that make sense now?

vela
Staff Emeritus