Probability function of two random variables, another non-convergent integral

  • Thread starter ArcanaNoir
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  • #26
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I found that result because the integral of 0 is 0 so its still 0 when x<0
and then you integrate the interval from the lower bound to x, and thats x
and then since it equals 1 when x is at its maximum (and because this is the property of the cdf) it's one for the rest of the numbers.

I meant a keyboard button. :P
 
  • #27
I like Serena
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Exactly.
This is also precisely what you have to do for the problem at hand.
It is what I did in the step I worked out.
Does that make sense now?
 
  • #28
vela
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I meant a keyboard button. :P
If you're using a Mac, option-< and option-> produce those characters.
 

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